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I would think that if he had 1 or 0 cards in his hand, he could still choose to discard to negate it...it's just that he would be discarding zero cards. But that's just my opinion.
Quote from: Scottie_ffgamer on April 20, 2009, 11:34:22 PMI would think that if he had 1 or 0 cards in his hand, he could still choose to discard to negate it...it's just that he would be discarding zero cards. But that's just my opinion.A player cannot discard zero cards. I agree with the consensus.
what does rounded down mean though? i dont get it... cause if they (your opponent) has 6 cards in hand they would discard 3 right? and if they had 5 cards in hand would they only discard 3 or 2 cards? i would asume 3 but.... idk...
but what about jepthah? what if you have 0 cards in your deck? can you d/c 0 cards to discard up to two EC's in an opponents territory?
This is a change in ruling... I do agree with the recurring complaint about rulings changing with no notice or even admission that a rule changed.
But I have never ruled that X can't equal zero. Nor have I affirmed such an answer. Stephen and I are in agreement about this answer.
Where is this "rule change" of which you speak?
But it's not what was ruled before, and nobody wants to admit that this is a change.
So then, the "current" ruling (in quotation marks because there seemed to be some question about whether or not it has always been this way) is that since the required discard is half the hand, then half the hand can equal zero so zero cards can be discarded to negate Sinning Hand?
I guess that makes sense but... How can doing nothing be a cost? It requires you to discard, which is the act of putting something into the discard pile.. if you do that with zero cards, you didnt discard anything....