Author Topic: Moses is a priest? Try 2! Now with scriptual backing! (Judge?) (Read 32499 times)

Bible says Moses was a Priest, Moses was a Levite, Moses went into "priests-only" areas, Moses offered sacrifices for the Children of Israel, sounds pretty obvious now that we have the previously-overlooked information.

Notice the Glow. It was mentioned very early in this thread that Moses was not directly from the priestly line. I would like to note that He was. Aaron and his sons were in the line for the High Priesthood. If you look at the other Levite (men) they were all priests in some sense. I guess you would say that someone who offered inscence in the temple in the new testament wasn't a priest unless he was the High Priest if we use that logic (obviously reffering to the father of John the Baptist).

I am not ripping the person who made the comment, just mentioning the point.

Warrior_Monk · « **Reply #107 on:** January 21, 2010, 10:49:44 PM »

on a side note, was it ever decided what a musician is technically? Moses should mos def be one.

EmJayBee83 · « **Reply #108 on:** January 22, 2010, 09:03:11 AM »

Quote from: Minister Polarius on January 15, 2010, 06:45:05 PM

Bible says Moses was a Priest, Moses was a Levite, Moses went into "priests-only" areas, Moses offered sacrifices for the Children of Israel, sounds pretty obvious now that we have the previously-overlooked information.

This information was not only previously overlooked by Cactus but within Jewish and Christian traditions in general. Judaism treats Aaron as the first Priest, specifically the first Kohen ha-Godal (high priest), In Hebrews the comparison between the priesthood of Christ and the Levitical priesthood uses Aaron as the example of the Priesthood (Hebrews 5:4). The Catholic catechism specifically equates the Catholic priesthood as the NT version of the priesthood established by Aaron and his sons (which also explains St. Patrick).

All I'm saying is that there are good reasons why Aaron is viewed as the first of the Levitical line of Priests, and these reasons have nothing to do with simply overlooking obvious information.

SirNobody · « **Reply #109 on:** January 22, 2010, 07:26:43 PM »

Hey,

Quote from: Shofarblower on January 21, 2010, 10:28:17 PM

It was mentioned very early in this thread that Moses was not directly from the priestly line. I would like to note that He was. Aaron and his sons were in the line for the High Priesthood. If you look at the other Levite (men) they were all priests in some sense.

Moses was not part of the priestly line. The priestly line (all of the priests that functioned under the Law) was Aaron and all of his descendants. Moses does not fit that requirement. Yes Moses was a Levite, but not all Levites were priests. The tribe of Levi was dedicated for service to God, but that service was not exclusively as priests. Chenaniah and Jeiel are two examples of Leites that were not priests; Moses would be a third example.

When I read Psalm 99:6 the mention of Moses and Aaron strikes me as a complementary statement. Aaron being a "representative" of the Levitical Priesthood, Moses being a "representative" of the Priesthood of all Believers. Together representing the entire nation of Israel.

From my understanding, that then means that Moses is only being called a priest as part of the priesthood of all Believers which does not qualify him as a priest as far as Redemption is concerned.

Tschow,

Tim "Sir Nobody" Maly

TheKarazyvicePresidentRR · « **Reply #110 on:** January 22, 2010, 07:34:24 PM »

Quote

From my understanding, that then means that Moses is only being called a priest as part of the priesthood of all Believers which does not qualify him as a priest as far as Redemption is concerned.

But at that time there was no "Priesthood of all believers". It was you're a priest, or you aren't.

YourMathTeacher · « **Reply #111 on:** January 22, 2010, 07:40:22 PM »

Quote from: TheKarazyvicePresidentRR on January 22, 2010, 07:34:24 PM

But at that time there was no "Priesthood of all believers". It was you're a priest, or you aren't.

Yeah, you're right. Redemption was so much easier to make rulings for in those days.

STAMP · « **Reply #112 on:** January 22, 2010, 08:21:52 PM »

Quote from: SirNobody on January 22, 2010, 07:26:43 PM

Hey,

Quote from: Shofarblower on January 21, 2010, 10:28:17 PM
It was mentioned very early in this thread that Moses was not directly from the priestly line. I would like to note that He was. Aaron and his sons were in the line for the High Priesthood. If you look at the other Levite (men) they were all priests in some sense.

Moses was not part of the priestly line. The priestly line (all of the priests that functioned under the Law) was Aaron and all of his descendants. Moses does not fit that requirement. Yes Moses was a Levite, but not all Levites were priests. The tribe of Levi was dedicated for service to God, but that service was not exclusively as priests. Chenaniah and Jeiel are two examples of Leites that were not priests; Moses would be a third example.

When I read Psalm 99:6 the mention of Moses and Aaron strikes me as a complementary statement. Aaron being a "representative" of the Levitical Priesthood, Moses being a "representative" of the Priesthood of all Believers. Together representing the entire nation of Israel.

From my understanding, that then means that Moses is only being called a priest as part of the priesthood of all Believers which does not qualify him as a priest as far as Redemption is concerned.

Tschow,

Tim "Sir Nobody" Maly

Sounds good. So that means Priests of Christ and St. Patrick can now be removed from the priest list which should make things easier.

SirNobody · « **Reply #113 on:** January 22, 2010, 08:31:00 PM »

Hey,

Quote from: TheKarazyvicePresidentRR on January 22, 2010, 07:34:24 PM

Quote
From my understanding, that then means that Moses is only being called a priest as part of the priesthood of all Believers which does not qualify him as a priest as far as Redemption is concerned.
But at that time there was no "Priesthood of all believers". It was you're a priest, or you aren't.

Quote from: Exodus 19:3,6

3 Then Moses went up to God, and the LORD called to him from the mountain and said, "This is what you are to say to the house of Jacob and what you are to tell the people of Israel: ... 6 you will be for me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation.' These are the words you are to speak to the Israelites."

Tschow,

Tim "Sir Nobody" Maly

TheKarazyvicePresidentRR · « **Reply #114 on:** January 22, 2010, 09:51:54 PM »

"you will be for me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation"
But with God setting apart (Making holy) the priests that second part seems unnecessary, but that may just be me.

Shofarblower · « **Reply #115 on:** January 22, 2010, 10:42:17 PM »

Quote from: SirNobody on January 22, 2010, 07:26:43 PM

Hey,

Moses was not part of the priestly line. The priestly line (all of the priests that functioned under the Law) was Aaron and all of his descendants. Moses does not fit that requirement. Yes Moses was a Levite, but not all Levites were priests. The tribe of Levi was dedicated for service to God, but that service was not exclusively as priests. Chenaniah and Jeiel are two examples of Leites that were not priests; Moses would be a third example.

Tschow,

Tim "Sir Nobody" Maly

Not trying to argue but I found this tonight -

Jos 18:6 Ye shall therefore describe the land into seven parts, and bring the description hither to me, that I may cast lots for you here before the LORD our God.
Jos 18:7 But the Levites have no part among you; for the priesthood of the LORD is their inheritance: and Gad, and Reuben, and half the tribe of Manasseh, have received their inheritance beyond Jordan on the east, which Moses the servant of the LORD gave them.

There is more in scripture to back up my stand, but it would take far more time and space to present it than here. I would have to delve into biblical Hebrew and contextual verbage and the like.

I will say in Tim and anyone elses defense on the issue, the english translations of scripture do lead one to believe that the "Priesthood" as a whole was simply for Aaron and his sons. I will defer to that in my statements because Redemption is challenging enough without every Levite after Exodus becoming a priest overnight.

TheKarazyvicePresidentRR · « **Reply #116 on:** January 22, 2010, 11:09:19 PM »

It wouldn't be every levite. The Bible said he was a priest. The bible said Miriam was a prophetess but there was no huge discussion about it. The Bible said it and that was that.

EmJayBee83 · « **Reply #117 on:** January 22, 2010, 11:57:48 PM »

Quote from: TheKarazyvicePresidentRR on January 22, 2010, 11:09:19 PM

It wouldn't be every levite. The Bible said he was a priest. The bible said Miriam was a prophetess but there was no huge discussion about it. The Bible said it and that was that.

The Bible says all of Israel are priests

Quote from: Exodus 19:6 (KJV)

And ye shall be unto me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation. These are the words which thou shalt speak unto the children of Israel.

The Bible also says that all New Testament believers are priests

Quote from: 1 Peter 2:5, 9 (KJV)

5. Ye also, as lively stones, are built up a spiritual house, an holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices, acceptable to God by Jesus Christ.

9. But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light;

Are you arguing for Redemption game play purposes that all OT Israelites and everyone from the New Testament should be given the identifier as priest? If not, what differences do you see between the passage taken from Psalms and the passages taken from Exodus or 2 Peter? (I'm not arguing with you, I am asking for an explanation.)

Warrior_Monk · « **Reply #118 on:** January 23, 2010, 12:31:26 AM »

Quote from: Ring Wraith on January 21, 2010, 10:49:44 PM

on a side note, was it ever decided what a musician is technically? Moses should mos def be one.

YourMathTeacher · « **Reply #119 on:** January 23, 2010, 07:59:07 AM »

Quote from: Ring Wraith on January 23, 2010, 12:31:26 AM

on a side note, was it ever decided what a musician is technically? Moses should mos def be one.

It can certainly be argued that Moses was an instrument.

Prof Underwood · « **Reply #120 on:** January 23, 2010, 08:20:57 AM »

Quote from: EmJayBee83 on January 22, 2010, 11:57:48 PM

what differences do you see between the passage taken from Psalms and the passages taken from Exodus or 2 Peter?

I think the difference is that it picks out Moses as a specific person to call him a priest. It is true that the entire nation of Israel were priests in the sense that God was trying to use them as a nation to draw other nations to Himself. However, there were also specific people within the nation of Israel who were designated as priests in a special way (Levites). The passages that you bring up are referring to the former, and I think the passage that points out Moses is referring to the latter.

The Bible never says that many OT and NT people are priests by name, but it does Moses. And I think that's important.

Ironica · « **Reply #121 on:** January 23, 2010, 08:24:24 AM »

Quote from: YourMathTeacher on January 23, 2010, 07:59:07 AM

Quote from: Ring Wraith on January 23, 2010, 12:31:26 AM
on a side note, was it ever decided what a musician is technically? Moses should mos def be one.

It can certainly be argued that Moses was an instrument.

EmJayBee83 · « **Reply #122 on:** January 23, 2010, 10:09:44 AM »

Quote from: Prof Underwood on January 23, 2010, 08:20:57 AM

Quote from: EmJayBee83 on January 22, 2010, 11:57:48 PM
what differences do you see between the passage taken from Psalms and the passages taken from Exodus or 2 Peter?
I think the difference is that it picks out Moses as a specific person to call him a priest.

I grant that you interpretation is possible, but SirNobody's interpretation posited above--that Moses was used in Psalms as an representative archetype of the general priesthood of believers--also strikes me as possible. So the question becomes "Which interpretation is correct?"

To be honest, I would be much more comfortable with the interpretation the pro-Moses-as-priest faction were putting forward if any part of Jewish (or Christian) tradition held that Moses was a (good) priest. I can point to any number of places in both traditions where Aaron is called the first high priest. Do you have anything that you can point to along those lines that supports your interpretation? (And if Aaron is the first high priest, wouldn't that at minimum preclude Moses from being a high priest?)

BubbleBoy · « **Reply #123 on:** January 23, 2010, 11:19:34 AM »

I think we need more clearly defined qualifications for priesthood in Redemption. ... In fact, we probably need more clearly defined qualifications for quite a few identifiers.

TheKarazyvicePresidentRR · « **Reply #124 on:** January 23, 2010, 11:57:09 AM »

Quote

(And if Aaron is the first high priest, wouldn't that at minimum preclude Moses from being a high priest?)

But no one is saying he was the HP, just A priest.

News:

Author Topic: Moses is a priest? Try 2! Now with scriptual backing! (Judge?) (Read 32499 times)

Warrior_Monk

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Ironica